AMSA Basic Nursing 103 Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Which option best describes NPDB accessibility?
• What does a partial bed bath include?
• Provide a patient education plan for an asthma patient prescribed a metered-dose inhaler.
• Which two pain assessment tools are appropriate for nonverbal adults, and when is each used?
• How should you safely remove PPE to avoid self-contamination?
• What model is used to understand the relationships of basic human needs?
• Where do you place a body identification tag?
• What does risk management primarily help an organization do?
• Name two common priorities in postoperative care in the PACU.
• What is an advanced directive?
• Which of the following is a category of basic human needs that is typically associated with self-worth?
• When do you inventory an unused crash cart?
• What does PRP stand for?
• Deliberate RM process may involve what five steps?
• Which sequence correctly describes a basic airway assessment and airway clearance for a conscious patient?
• Which statement accurately distinguishes standard precautions from transmission-based precautions?
• What is the purpose of ASIMS?
• Which PPE is required for contact precautions?
• Differentiate between a sterile field and a clean field and describe how long a sterile field remains sterile.
• How long do work excuses generally last?
• Which statement about bed baths is accurate?
• Which area is included in a partial bed bath?
• RM in planning should be integrated at what levels?
• Which statement best describes the purpose of the Personnel Reliability Program (PRP)?
• Which of the following items is most likely tracked in ASIMS to support readiness?
• Which statement is NOT one of the five steps of the coping process?
• Surgical asepsis is defined as procedures that aim to do what?
• What direction do you shave a patient's face and underarm hair?
• Which description best defines log-rolling technique?
• How is urine output measured accurately in a hospitalized patient, and what is a typical normal hourly output?
• Which of the following describes the MEB's composition?
• What does HIPAA regulate?
• Stage III ulcer involves what?
• Which of the following is NOT a stated purpose of the NPDB?
• What is abuse?
• Immunization status is one of the six key components of what?
• Which of the following is NOT part of the chain of infection?
• When are military personnel and their family members screened that have overseas assignments?
• Which practice helps prevent aspiration during NG tube feedings?
• Which pairing of documents would best cover end-of-life wishes and proxy designation?
• Which practices prevent CAUTI (catheter-associated urinary tract infection)?
• What defines the droplet mode of transmission?
• Who is responsible for identifying and preparing a list of diseases that must be reported under federal, state, and local laws?
• What is a Health Care Integrator?
• What are benefits of back massage for patients?
• What should all personnel do immediately after exposure to hazardous material?
• What is aseptic technique?
• What is a durable power of attorney?
• Which of the following is NOT among the five basic needs categories?
• Which system is used for immunization status access from both home station and deployed locations?
• What is a reservoir host?
• What are vehicle modes of transmission?
• Which of the following statements best describes proactive steps to prevent 'failure to rescue' later in a course of care?
• Which statement best describes the role of a reservoir in infection?
• Which statement best defines aseptic technique?
• Define 'failure to rescue' and discuss a proactive approach to prevent it.
• Partial bed bath areas included?
• HIPAA privacy: which option describes its purpose?
• What is surgical asepsis (sterile technique)?
• Which description best fits hypoactive bowel sounds?
• Who makes up the Medical Evaluation Board (MEB)?
• When do you change the sharp's container?
• During a shift handoff, which information should be communicated to ensure safe patient care?
• Which hallmark is associated with Stage I pressure ulcer?
• Which of the following is an example of an obese BMI category?
• Identify two wound dressings and describe when each is appropriately used.
• What position should a patient be placed in when using incentive spirometry?
• In a SOAPP note, what does the letter P stand for?
• Which of the following describes the symptoms that accompany a concerning orthostatic blood pressure drop?
• What patient population is the use of incentive spirometry used?
• What is an important component of universal protocol?
• What is link two of the chain of infection?
• Which item describes a system that provides secure online access to health care records across an enterprise?
• What category of human needs includes friendship and family and sexual intimacy?
• Which is an isotonic IV solution?
• Which position is appropriate for using incentive spirometry?
• What are four examples of fraud?
• What is the portal of exit?
• Which statement correctly defines systolic and diastolic pressures?
• Identify two common oxygen delivery devices and their typical FiO2 ranges.
• Culturally competent care is best described as providing care that respects patient beliefs and values; for example, accommodating dietary restrictions based on religious or cultural practices.
• Which is an example of droplet transmission?
• Which statement is NOT a described benefit of back massage?
• What does SSPs stand for?
• How often should PHAs be accomplished?
• HCIs oversee which aspects of population health?
• Which risk factors are associated with NSAID use?
• Which are essential elements of accurate nursing documentation?
• Which of the following is a category of basic human needs?
• In a SOAPP note, what does the letter O represent?
• What is an SF 600?
• During leg stimulation of a post operative patient, what should you avoid?
• Which statement best describes when acetaminophen is preferred over NSAIDs due to safety considerations?
• Which term represents the perfusion pressure seen by organs?
• When must PCS medical documents be printed and filed in the individual's health record?
• In a SOAPP note, what does the letter S represent?
• What are living wills?
• In a SOAPP note, the Plan section is used to do what?
• Which statement about incentive spirometry is NOT accurate?
• Which description matches an electronic health record?
• What is OPSEC?
• Which statement about universal protocol guidelines is false?
• Which of the following describes Health Care Integrator qualifications?
• Which statement describes the contact mode of transmission?
• Which of the following is a sign of hypervolemia?
• Immunization status is a component of medical readiness?
• What are the six rights of medication administration commonly taught to nurses?
• Which of the following is a consequence of a lack of oral hygiene?
• Which is an essential component of informed consent?
• Which IV fluid is typically chosen for resuscitation and why?
• In the chain of infection, link five is which concept?
• Which IM site is preferred due to fewer nerves and is commonly used for injections?
• What is medical asepsis (clean technique)?
• What should all personnel immediately do if exposed to hazardous material?
• Bed baths are utilized for which patient populations?
• When caring for a patient with an NG tube, which action is essential?
• What do HCIs oversee?
• Define subjective data versus objective data in nursing documentation and give an example of each.
• What occurs with failure to implement directed OPSEC measures?
• What are the normal adult ranges for systolic blood pressure, diastolic blood pressure, pulse, respirations, and oral temperature?
• Which statement best describes the relationship between mean arterial pressure and organ perfusion?
• In the chain of infection, which element is Link One?
• What are the 4 principles of resource management?
• Which of the following is NOT a factor that influences hygiene?
• What is the correct order of the five steps in the nursing process?
• Stage IV ulcer involves exposure of what structures?
• Which document designates a health care proxy?
• Which practice is essential to standard precautions and helps reduce transmission of microorganisms?
• Which is an example of implementing airborne precautions?
• In the chain of infection, what does the portal of exit refer to?
• Differentiate between a penicillin allergy history and an actual anaphylactic reaction, and how should a nurse document this?
• Which BMI range is considered normal for adults?
• What is the importance of incentive spirometry?
• Compare clean catch with sterile urine specimen collection and explain when each is appropriate.
• What is significant about behavioral health medical records?
• The SF 600 is used to document patient encounters when the electronic medical record is not functional. Which statement best describes this form?
• Which verification steps are essential before performing a procedure?
• What is the appropriate initial response when a patient refuses a prescribed treatment?
• Which set correctly pairs signs with electrolyte imbalance and a typical nursing response?
• Which IM site is typically chosen for injections in adults due to being large enough and safer (fewer underlying nerves)?
• Describe the difference between capillary puncture (fingerstick) and venipuncture for blood glucose testing.
• What is the old name for a work excuse?
• Which of the following is a factor considered when determining PRP status?
• How long should you wash your hands to effectively remove pathogens?
• Describe the proper needle gauge and typical volume for intramuscular injections in adults.
• How do you calculate BMI and interpret the result?
• Gauze dressings are typically used for which purpose?
• What is the difference between clean technique and sterile technique, and when is each appropriate?
• Which term describes the entry route of a pathogen into a new host?
• What are orthostatic vital signs?
• What is a primary purpose of a nasogastric tube, and what are key nursing responsibilities?
• Which statement best describes how risk management should be integrated?
• Which statement about incentive spirometry usage is true?
• Which sign indicates systemic infection?
• What is a major safety concern with acetaminophen overdose?
• What does PCS stand for?
• What should a coughing patient examine their sputum for?
• Which statement accurately describes NPDB?
• End-of-life decisions are addressed by which document?
• What is the decision-making process used to systematically evaluate possible courses of action, identify risks and benefits, and determine the best course of action for any given situation?
• Which populations are medical technicians not allowed to trim nails for?
• Which area is included in the five basic needs categories list?
• What determines enrollment or continued enrollment in the Personnel Reliability Program (PRP)?
• What is a full liquid diet?
• Which of the following is NOT a MEB disposition category?
• Which of the following is a sign of hypovolemia?
• Which of the following represents signs of anaphylaxis and a recommended initial nursing intervention?
• A concerning orthostatic BP change is a drop of 20 mmHg systolic or 10 mmHg diastolic with symptoms. Which option matches this criterion?
• Which of the following best describes proactive steps to prevent 'failure to rescue'?
• Which strategy is essential for preventing falls in older adults in hospital or community settings?
• In the chain of infection, which is link four?
• In the deliberate RM process, what does the final step involve?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the five categories of basic human needs?
• Bed baths are utilized for which patient conditions?
• What is the purpose of universal protocol guidelines?
• Which statement best describes acetaminophen in comparison with NSAIDs?
• Which statement is true about the chain of infection?
• Mean arterial pressure is calculated by which formula?
• What is the National Practitioner Data Bank (NPDB)?
• Overseas screening timing: when are personnel and family members screened?
• Outline the steps to perform a sterile wound dressing change.
• What is an added advantage of effective RM?
• Which of the following is included as a factor in PRP status determination?
• Which cleansing direction is correct when cleansing a wound during dressing change?
• What is the typical SpO2 target range for most adults, and which condition may require a lower target?
• What is an infectious agent?
• Why should the catheter drainage bag be kept below the level of the bladder?
• SBAR consists of four components.
• Which of the following is an objective datum?
• What is AF Form 469?
• Which term describes the exit route of a pathogen from the host?
• What direction do you shave a patient's leg hair?
• Stage II pressure ulcer involves which depth?
• Which statement correctly describes vehicle transmission?
• What is waste?
• Which statement about labeling hazardous chemical containers is true?
• What is a vector mode of transmission?
• How does the renal system contribute to fluid and electrolyte balance?
• What increases risk for aspiration during anesthesia?
• In the chain of infection, link six refers to which concept?
• Which of the following is an early recognition sign of sepsis and the corresponding initial action?
• Which statement is one of the Risk Management Tenets?
• Which of the following is NOT a potential reservoir for a pathogen?
• Which factor would most likely lead to unreliable pulse oximeter readings?
• What is a common needle length for intramuscular injections in adults?
• Which of the following is NOT an essential component of informed consent for a procedure?
• What is link three of the chain of infection?